Published on 12, July, 2020
Many years ago my local AS support group had to make a decision between ICD-10 and DSM-IV as their primary reference manual. We chose ICD-10.
One reason for choosing ICD-10 is that it's already used by GPs, school nurses, and pediatric consultants (who are the first lines of contact in the medical profession) whereas DSM-IV tends to be confined to the bookshelves of folk who specialise in psychiatry and mental health rather than working in general medicine.
The second reason is that ICD-10 is FREE and available on the internet whereas DSM-IV costs ££££ as it's a commercial product sold by the American Psychiatric Association.
After DSM-5 was released I have had numerous parents ask me where they can get hold of it for free, because it's now the norm for ASD diagnosis in Britain. A copy of DSM-5 and DSM-IV are kept on the bookshelf of my local AS support group but I have to constantly remind parents that if they want a copy themselves then they must pay ££££ for it whereas ICD-10 and ICD-11 are available for FREE on the internet.
Why then is DSM now more popular in Britain than ICD is when you have to pay ££££ for it?
What exactly was the driving force behind the widespread adoption of DSM-5 for the purpose of diagnosis of ASD in Britain? Was DSM-5 simply perceived as more modern than ICD-10? Was it an attempt to harmonise diagnosis in Britain with diagnosis in the US? Was there a significant dissatisfaction with ICD-10 (and possibly DSM-IV as well) by clinical psychologists?
Before the publication of DSM-5 the use of ICD-10 was much more popular than DSM-IV.